There are two instances in the play so far where I can't explain why the interrogative τί is used.
First, lines 270-2:
ἀλλά μοι δοκεῖ στάντας ἐνθάδ᾽ ὦνδρες
ᾁδοντας αὐτὸν ἐκκαλεῖν, ἤν τί πως ἀκούσας
τοὐμοῦ μέλους ὑφ᾽ ἡδονῆς ἑρπύσῃ θύραζε.
Here's my trans:
But I think, men, that, standing here, we should call him out by singing, in the hope that, after somehow hearing something of my song, he hobbles out of the door on account of his delight.
^I'm not sure why τι wasn't used instead?
Second, lines 291-2:
ἐθελήσεις τί μοι οὖν ὦ
πάτερ, ἤν σού τι δεηθῶ;
I can only think for the second one that it's interrogative because he's asking 'What will you be willing (to give) to me, therefore, father, if I ask for something from you' (rather than the more common translation I've come across which is 'will you be willing to give me something, father, if I ask for it?' - because I think in this case, unless I'm mistaken, it would have to be τι not τί ?)
Why is τί interrogative? Aristophanes' Wasps.
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- Barry Hofstetter
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Re: Why is τί interrogative? Aristophanes' Wasps.
In both cases, τι is followed by an enclitic, which shifts the accent to the preceding word. These are therefore the indefinite use, as your instinct correctly led you to understand.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Cuncta mortalia incerta...
Cuncta mortalia incerta...