I am going through Sidgwick’s work, found here: http://www.textkit.com/learn/ID/167/author_id/66/
On page 28, paragraph 37, related to the use of the dative, he supplies the example:
Τῆ ἀυρἰον.
Much as in Modern Greek την επαύριο this stands, I believe for Τῆ ἀυρἰον ἡμέρᾳ.
But why is the accent not on the first syllable? Checking Liddell Scott, I only see accents on the first syllable: http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/mor ... 7:entry=au)/rion-contents
τῇ αυρίον (accent on the penultima)
-
- Textkit Neophyte
- Posts: 20
- Joined: Sun Feb 11, 2018 5:23 pm
-
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 4790
- Joined: Fri Oct 18, 2013 2:34 am
Re: τῇ αυρίον (accent on the penultima)
I expect it's just a typo.