Is there internal evidence in Greek that the name Δαναοί used to have another consonant before the ending? I.e. Δανα?οί
Is this the correct form of the hieroglyph of the name of the land of the Δαναοί (Tinay).
[i.e. MdC. ti*i:n:A*Z4-!]
In Cline's 2011 article on the Aegean people (page 8 ), it is not the clearest part of the picture.
Did the name Δαναοί used to have another consonant?
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Did the name Δαναοί used to have another consonant?
τί δὲ ἀγαθὸν τῇ πομφόλυγι συνεστώσῃ ἢ κακὸν διαλυθείσῃ;
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Re: Did the name Δαναοί used to have another consonant?
If it helps, Pierre Chantraine’s Dictionnaire Étymologique de la Langue Grecque, Histoire des mots (Paris: Klincksieck, 1968) has this entry on page 251, which indicates no additional letters:ἑκηβόλος wrote:Is there internal evidence in Greek that the name Δαναοί used to have another consonant before the ending? I.e. Δανα?οί
Δαναοί. m. pl. nom d’une tribu grecque, employé également par Homère pour désigner les Grecs en général ; la légende rattache le nom au roi d’Argos Danaos venu d’Égypte. Superlatif Δαναώτατος (Ar.)*. Dérivés Δανάιδες filles de Danaos, Δαναḯδαι fils de Danaos.
Hypothèse de Kretschmer, Gl.** 24, 1936, 15 sqq.
* (Ar.) = Aristophanes
** Gl = the journal Glotta. Goettingen
- Barry Hofstetter
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Re: Did the name Δαναοί used to have another consonant?
Wouldn't there then be compensatory lengthening, so that the -α- would be long?
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
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Re: Did the name Δαναοί used to have another consonant?
Here is one source that expounds that theory:
https://books.google.com/books?id=NMkUA ... &q&f=false
Despite the references in Mycenaean, I see no entry for Dana(w)oi in Palmer's index, so I imagine that it's a reconstruction and not an actual word claimed for a tablet somewhere.
https://books.google.com/books?id=NMkUA ... &q&f=false
Despite the references in Mycenaean, I see no entry for Dana(w)oi in Palmer's index, so I imagine that it's a reconstruction and not an actual word claimed for a tablet somewhere.
“One might get one’s Greek from the very lips of Homer and Plato." "In which case they would certainly plough you for the Little-go. The German scholars have improved Greek so much.”
Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com
Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com
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Re: Did the name Δαναοί used to have another consonant?
There’s an intriguing and well-informed “reconstruction” of the first 100 lines of the Iliad into Mycenaean by Rob Wiseman. Of course he doesn’t pretend there ever was such a thing.
Accessible at https://vdocuments.mx/a-mycenaean-iliad.html
On Δαναοί he says:
“There has been much unsuccessful conjecture on Δαναοί. The only
plausible external reference appears on a number of Egyptian monuments: in
particular the mortuary temple of Amenhotep III (c. 1350 BCE). It contains a
list of ‘countries of the north of Asia’, including the geographically-close
Kft(y)w (Keftiu, Crete) and Tɩ̓nꜢy, (Tanaya or Tinay) which has been read as
Danaya. Assuming the association of Danaans and Tanaya is correct, I have
used *{Danay}-, as it provides the correct declension for Homer, along with
related names, such as Δανάη, Danaē, the Mother of Perseus.”
Accessible at https://vdocuments.mx/a-mycenaean-iliad.html
On Δαναοί he says:
“There has been much unsuccessful conjecture on Δαναοί. The only
plausible external reference appears on a number of Egyptian monuments: in
particular the mortuary temple of Amenhotep III (c. 1350 BCE). It contains a
list of ‘countries of the north of Asia’, including the geographically-close
Kft(y)w (Keftiu, Crete) and Tɩ̓nꜢy, (Tanaya or Tinay) which has been read as
Danaya. Assuming the association of Danaans and Tanaya is correct, I have
used *{Danay}-, as it provides the correct declension for Homer, along with
related names, such as Δανάη, Danaē, the Mother of Perseus.”
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Re: Did the name Δαναοί used to have another consonant?
ka te ba qe te e pe ra ja me ta ga la ko no a ri to no po se ka sa me no qe te wo ka sa ma se wo re te qo lo me no te a sa ta . . .
Bill Walderman
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Re: Did the name Δαναοί used to have another consonant?
Wouldn't that have been alpha pura?Hylander wrote:se wo re te
Any thoughts as to whether the adjectival use of the following relative was an extention of its allowable syntactic usage as Greek developed (ie encroaching on or supplanting the adjectival ποῖος), or did it always perform that adjectival syntactic function from protohellenic times? Ie. qi to po or qo jo to po perhaps? To state my question another way, was this relative originally limited to preducative syntactic slots, but then later was allowed in attributive slots, and in juxtaposition?Hylander wrote:...
τί δὲ ἀγαθὸν τῇ πομφόλυγι συνεστώσῃ ἢ κακὸν διαλυθείσῃ;