A Parallel of Greek and Latin Syntax

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calvinist
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A Parallel of Greek and Latin Syntax

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I just stumbled across this book: https://books.google.com/books?id=E8xFA ... &q&f=false
I'm not sure if it's been mentioned here before but it sets Latin and Greek syntax side by side in columns with example sentences (translated) covering every topic from the case uses to subordinate clauses. I've only skimmed through it but it looks like a great book to browse through for anyone who studies both Latin and Greek.

LateStarter
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Re: A Parallel of Greek and Latin Syntax

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On a more specific and initially tricky subject, for the same crowd:

"The Essential Uses of the Moods in Greek and Latin, Set Forth in Parallel Arrangement."

https://books.google.com/books?id=FgVLA ... &q&f=false

No promises it will display as nicely as a .pdf, but there probably reprints or of course ABEbooks etc.

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calvinist
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Re: A Parallel of Greek and Latin Syntax

Post by calvinist »

LateStarter wrote:On a more specific and initially tricky subject, for the same crowd:

"The Essential Uses of the Moods in Greek and Latin, Set Forth in Parallel Arrangement."

https://books.google.com/books?id=FgVLA ... &q&f=false

No promises it will display as nicely as a .pdf, but there probably reprints or of course ABEbooks etc.
Thank you. These types of books are very helpful for comparing/contrasting Latin and Greek.

I noticed under the sequence of tenses/moods section that the two uses of the Latin perfect tense are called "perfect definite" (primary tense) and "perfect indefinite" (historic tense). That is the worst terminology I've ever encountered for them. I can't understand the logic behind those terms. I prefer the terms "present perfect" and "aorist perfect".

On the very next page, though, while discussing sequence of moods in Greek they give the alternate terminology "historical subjunctive" for the optative. I find that to be a very helpful way to describe the optative since it's primary use is in dependent clauses where it functions similarly to the Latin imperfect/pluperfect subjunctive pair. I've even accidentally referred to the present optative as "imperfect subjunctive" by analogy with Latin.

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Re: A Parallel of Greek and Latin Syntax

Post by LateStarter »

Sure. I found that when I was finishing up Greek grammar so I didn't personally have recourse to it. It seemed slim and direct.

Just a note on the terminology: the perfect 'indefinite' would seem to be translating the Greek aoristos (through Latin (so excuse the Roman characters!)), if that's any help as an mnemonic.

You make a useful point about the optative and the Latin imperfect, which I think those who begin with Latin come to intuit, if not as explicitly as you have. But what never fails to turn my head around, still, is any of explication of Latin subjunctive uses by analogy with the Greek moods. I suspect those who started with Greek might agree - after the terms have been reversed.

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