Mastronarde -Unit 17, exercise III, no 5-
The answer key gives:
"τον θηρα υδωρ αιτουσι τοισ γαρ ανθρωποις εστιν τροπον τινα φιλιος."
Why the "ν" in εστιν? The following word does not start with a vowel, and the verb is not at the end of a clause, nor (as far as I can tell) is the sentence in verse. So why the "nu movable"?
Thanks.
Movable ν
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Movable ν
ὁ Βίος Χαλεπός
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Re: Movable ν
Does it make any difference? I habitually pronounce the enclitic ἐστίν with the νυ before a pause; another person will have a different habit; it won't interfere with comprehension.
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Re: Movable ν
But you aren’t an ancient greek, and modern habits are unlikely to help us in figuring out ancient meters, where moveable nu often matters.
“One might get one’s Greek from the very lips of Homer and Plato." "In which case they would certainly plough you for the Little-go. The German scholars have improved Greek so much.”
Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com
Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com
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Re: Movable ν
The Cambridge Grammar - 1.39, note 1 - states that movable nu is sometimes written before a consonant in prose.
Why? The sound of the sentence to the author's ear, perhaps?
Why? The sound of the sentence to the author's ear, perhaps?
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Re: Movable ν
According to Allen, the more "official" and less "popular" an inscription, the more it tends to indicate hiatus. Hiatus and the addition of moveable nu could both point to deliberate speech. But I've never really noticed much rhyme or reason to the exceptions to the normal rules while reading OCT texts. Outside inscriptions, who knows how much is original anyway? I'll see if I can find something in Kühner.
“One might get one’s Greek from the very lips of Homer and Plato." "In which case they would certainly plough you for the Little-go. The German scholars have improved Greek so much.”
Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com
Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com