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Posted: Thu Jun 09, 2005 9:30 pm
I'm working out of the White, and came across this sentence to translate, which confused me a bit:
κελεύσει τὸν στρατηγὸν τοὺς ἀνθρώπους λύειν.
Does this translate as "He commanded the general to destroy the men"? Or "He commanded the general; he destroys the men"? Neither seem right.
Posted: Thu Jun 09, 2005 9:37 pm
Just got it. [size=134]λύειν is an infinitive. So "He commanded the general to destroy the men" is right, right? For some reason I though the subjunctive might be needed to make that sentence, like in French.
Posted: Thu Jun 09, 2005 9:41 pm
Or more like "he will command". Damnit!
Posted: Thu Jun 09, 2005 10:10 pm
nrc wrote:Or more like "he will command". Damnit!
I would be inclined to take λύειν
as "loose" or "free" here, rather than "destroy." There are lots of other verbs for destruction that seem more likely if that was intended here.
Posted: Sat Jun 11, 2005 4:54 am
Thanks annis. So, just to check, a similar sentence translated into Greek from the same page:
"He will command the general to pursue the enemy."
[size=134]κελεύσει τὸν στρατηγὸν τοὺς πολέμιους διώκειν
Presumably there's some word-order rule to determine which verb applies to which accusative noun.
Posted: Mon Jun 13, 2005 3:34 am
nrc wrote:Presumably there's some word-order rule to determine which verb applies to which accusative noun.
Nope. Greek word order has to do with emphasis, not grammatical roles. You have to depend on context to determine this.
Posted: Wed Jun 29, 2005 6:54 pm
I suppose it would not be too odd if "he wi0ll order the men to free the general" were the meaning - at least if it were the general of a different army, or if the general was captured by the enemy or something. But, in the context vacuum, I woud go with "he will order the general to free the men."