Is Partus sequitur ventrem actually a Roman legal doctrine?

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ἑκηβόλος
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Is Partus sequitur ventrem actually a Roman legal doctrine?

Post by ἑκηβόλος »

I have a question about Roman law.

Is Partus sequitur ventrem a (classical) Roman civil law doctrine?
  • If it is, what period was it formalised in?
  • Does it exist in practice before the Corpus Juris Civilis?
  • Is there a tension between this doctrine and the rights afforded under the patriarchical system of Roman society?
Thanks in advance.
τί δὲ ἀγαθὸν τῇ πομφόλυγι συνεστώσῃ ἢ κακὸν διαλυθείσῃ;

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bedwere
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Re: Is Partus sequitur ventrem actually a Roman legal doctri

Post by bedwere »

No idea. However, here is a book you may want to look into:

Encyclopedic Dictionary of Roman Law
by Adolf Berger

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ἑκηβόλος
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Re: Is Partus sequitur ventrem actually a Roman legal doctri

Post by ἑκηβόλος »

The entries Fructus rei prignotatae and Partus ancillae mention children born into slavery under some conditions.
τί δὲ ἀγαθὸν τῇ πομφόλυγι συνεστώσῃ ἢ κακὸν διαλυθείσῃ;

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Re: Is Partus sequitur ventrem actually a Roman legal doctri

Post by jeidsath »

Gibbon talks about it somewhere. Here is an example from the Justinian code:

servi autem in dominium nostrum rediguntur aut iure civili aut gentium: iure civili, si quis se maior viginti annis ad pretium participandum venire passus est. iure gentium servi nostri sunt, qui ab hostibus capiuntur aut qui ex ancillis nostris nascuntur.

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